What does this statement mean
He has refused his Assent to Laws, the most wholesome and necessary for the public good.



Answer :

This mainly refers to instances where colonial legislatures passed domestic legislation but the British Parliament refused to ratify them.

What does Jefferson mean when he claims that the king has withheld his consent from passing a legislation that is vital for the wellbeing of the people?

This accusation relates to the fact that some colonies were required to submit their laws to the King for approval as soon as they were established.

What does it signify that he has refused to pass further laws to provide accommodations mean?

This accusation relates to a complaint that developed as a result of the British government's concern that the popular assemblies of the colonies were becoming too large and powerful as new communities were founded and more representatives were elected to the assembly of the colonies.

To know more about Assent to Laws visit :-

https://brainly.com/question/13786826

#SPJ4