Why does Kant think that the actions of a person who “without any further motive of vanity or self-interest, … find[s] an inner pleasure in spreading joy around them, taking delight in the contentment of others” has no genuine moral worth? Do you think that Kant is right about this? In particular do you think that the “misanthrope” has genuine moral worth, while the “humanitarian” doesn't? Why/why not? In answering this question it will be helpful re-read the section of chapter 10 entitled “The Good Will” and also to re-watch the video entitled “Kant on the Good Will”.