A coin marked “0” and “1” is tossed an infinite number of times, the probability of 1 in any toss being equal to p 2 (0, 1). The resulting sequence (outcome) ! is parsed into consecutive blocks of increasing length: 2, 4, 6,..., etc. What is the likelihood that, in infinitely many of these blocks, the first half of the terms are either all 0’s or all 1’s?