The explanation that could be used to verify whether the functions are inverses is; The point of intersection of the two functions is not on the line y = x; therefore, the functions are not inverses of each other.
If we assume that (a, b) is a point that lies on both the graph y = f(x) and the graph y = f⁻¹(x), then from the second condition, it follows that the point (b, a) lies on the graph of f.
So, we’re looking for a function whose graph includes two points (a, b) and (b, a) and we want a ≠ b. An example is;
f(x) = -1/x³
So that the inverse function is f⁻¹(x) = 1/x^(1/3)
Thus, applying that concept to this question and we can conclude that the point of intersection of the two functions is not on the line y = x; therefore, the functions are not inverses of each other.
Read more about Inverse function at; https://brainly.com/question/11735394
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